allahrakha
Hi, Can anybody prove the following statement a=2a
From India, New Delhi
Kumar H P
53

a = 2a -----------Eq1
Lets assume a = a1
a1 = 2 a1 ------- Eq2
Lets assume a = a2
a2 = 2 a2 ------- Eq3
Eq2 - Eq3
a1-a2 = 2a1- 2 a2
(a1-a2) = 2( a1-a2)
2 = (a1 -a2)/( a1- a2)
2 = 1
Therefore Eq1 becomes
a = 2a
Truly Yours,
Kumar.H.P

From Hong Kong
V. VENU
1

Actually I too can Prove this :wink: .... but what
happened is that i was
getting late to office and so I forgot to eat ' sona chandi chavanprash " in
that hurry .... :lol: :lol: :lol: :lol: :lol: :lol: :lol: :lol: :lol: :lol: :lol:

From India, Hyderabad
sunilvs27
hi kumar,
it seems you are eating sona chandi chavanprash too much. why to take all these pains.
if a=2a; then 2 = a/a which will be 2 = 1
for this simple step, you went all the way round the globe............
take care of sona chandi..............

From Oman, Muscat
madhu.varshitt
sunil your analogy is wrong
you are working on an assumption that a = 2a
the fact is that we need to prove that and not work out of that assumption
this is a proof by solution...not a proof by reinforcement
thanks,
Madhu

From India, Madras
Bheshaz
Prove: a = 2a
LHS = a
RHS = 2a
To Prove: LHS = RHS
Proof: Multiply both sides by 0
LHS = a X 0 = 0
RHS = 2a X 0 = 0
LHS = RHS = 0
Hence Proved, a=2a
Hope it make sense...
Regards
Bheshaz Bedi
#9871116988

From India, New Delhi
adewang17
4

hi dear, Being an HR person I would say, WHEN 'A' IS MOTIVATED , HE BECOMES (PERFORMS AS) '2A' ARCHANA
From India, Pune
allahrakha
Hi all,
After a lot of brain stroming and calculations we all talked about logic in addition to the superior answers we received a wonderful statement was noticed which says "Motivation multiplies the performance within the same individual or set of people ".
When the right motivation need is identified and supplied properly performance may go beyond all logics, calculation, strategies.
Nice to receive wonderful replies from all of you.
Regards
Allarakha

From India, New Delhi
jabran
3

Nice one.. must give credit to Kumar!
The actual fact is - in maths you cannot divide any number by zero - so if you notice below:
a = 2a -----------Eq1
Lets assume a = a1
a1 = 2 a1 ------- Eq2
Lets assume a = a2
a2 = 2 a2 ------- Eq3
Eq2 - Eq3
a1-a2 = 2a1- 2 a2
(a1-a2) = 2( a1-a2)
2 = (a1 -a2)/( a1- a2) this is the place where it is zero divided by zero!! hence you gett the following answer :)
2 = 1
Therefore Eq1 becomes
a = 2a
have a fantastic weekend!!

From India, New Delhi
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