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Hi,

I have heard that the Indian garment industry has a man:machine ratio of 2.54, and for Bangladesh, it is 1.15. What does this mean? Is it the direct labor to direct machine ratio, or does it include everyone from the CEO to the dispatch person in the industry? How do I calculate the man:machine ratio? Please tell me.

Thank you.

From India, Mumbai
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Dear Chandru,

The man-machine ratio refers to the number of manpower required to perform a job in proportion to the number of machines in operation. For example, machines include cutting machines, sewing machines, k/b machines, sample sewing machines, and alteration machines. If there are a total of 500 machines, the required manpower is 1000 individuals (including operators). Therefore, for 500 machines, 1000 manpower is needed in the ratio of 1:2 (a standard ratio across the industry).

Regards,
Chandru
Bangalore

From India, Bangalore
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What do you do and where? Why do you want to know the answer? Do you know the difference between Direct and Indirect labor? Have you searched the web? I did and found quite a few sites that answer your question. I suggest that you also search the web and, if you are still not clear, then raise the question again. Have a nice day. Simhan


From United Kingdom
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Dear Chandru Thanks for your nice clarification. But Would we like to count all machine (Working+Idle) & Existing manpower. If any standard ratio pls let us know. Thanks Md. Atiqul Islam Apu
From Bangladesh
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