Dear all,
if a worker completed 7 years in an organisation but among these 7 years he could not complete 240 days in two years, then for how many years gratuity will be payable for me. Also what is te relivance of Laralappa case in this?
Please help
Vijay
From India, Jaipur
if a worker completed 7 years in an organisation but among these 7 years he could not complete 240 days in two years, then for how many years gratuity will be payable for me. Also what is te relivance of Laralappa case in this?
Please help
Vijay
From India, Jaipur
If the year in which the employee did not work for 240 days, no action was taken against the employee or if the days of loss of pay were approved, he will be eligible for gratuity. Please follow the link also.
https://www.citehr.com/140199-paymen...tml#post593985
Regards,
Madhu.T.K
From India, Kannur
4193https://www.citehr.com/140199-paymen...tml#post593985
Regards,
Madhu.T.K
From India, Kannur
Thank you Mr. Madhu,
But what that company is doing is showing an employee service for 7 years but paying gratuity of only 5 years. When asked they answered that the employee could not complete 240 days in two years. As per your link it seemed that if any notice has been issued that he is not even liable for gratuity payment but if not then he owns gratuity for complete 7 years.
Vijay
From India, Jaipur
But what that company is doing is showing an employee service for 7 years but paying gratuity of only 5 years. When asked they answered that the employee could not complete 240 days in two years. As per your link it seemed that if any notice has been issued that he is not even liable for gratuity payment but if not then he owns gratuity for complete 7 years.
Vijay
From India, Jaipur
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Gratuity calculation.doc
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