a = 2a -----------Eq1
Let's assume a = a1
a1 = 2a1 ------- Eq2
Let's assume a = a2
a2 = 2a2 ------- Eq3
Eq2 - Eq3
a1 - a2 = 2a1 - 2a2
(a1 - a2) = 2(a1 - a2)
2 = (a1 - a2)/(a1 - a2)
2 = 1
Therefore, Eq1 becomes
a = 2a
Truly Yours,
Kumar.H.P
From Hong Kong
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55Let's assume a = a1
a1 = 2a1 ------- Eq2
Let's assume a = a2
a2 = 2a2 ------- Eq3
Eq2 - Eq3
a1 - a2 = 2a1 - 2a2
(a1 - a2) = 2(a1 - a2)
2 = (a1 - a2)/(a1 - a2)
2 = 1
Therefore, Eq1 becomes
a = 2a
Truly Yours,
Kumar.H.P
From Hong Kong
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Hi Kumar,
It seems you are eating Sona Chandi Chyawanprash too much. Why take all these pains? If a = 2a; then 2 = a/a which will be 2 = 1. For this simple step, you went all the way round the globe...
Take care of Sona Chandi.
From Oman, Muscat
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It seems you are eating Sona Chandi Chyawanprash too much. Why take all these pains? If a = 2a; then 2 = a/a which will be 2 = 1. For this simple step, you went all the way round the globe...
Take care of Sona Chandi.
From Oman, Muscat
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Sunil, your analogy is wrong. You are working on an assumption that a = 2a. The fact is that we need to prove that and not work out of that assumption. This is a proof by solution, not a proof by reinforcement.
Thanks, Madhu
From India, Madras
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Thanks, Madhu
From India, Madras
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Prove: a = 2a
LHS = a
RHS = 2a
To Prove: LHS = RHS
Proof: Multiply both sides by 0
LHS = a x 0 = 0
RHS = 2a x 0 = 0
LHS = RHS = 0
Hence Proved, a = 2a
Hope it makes sense...
Regards,
Bheshaz Bedi
#9871116988
beshaz09@gmail.com
From India, New Delhi
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LHS = a
RHS = 2a
To Prove: LHS = RHS
Proof: Multiply both sides by 0
LHS = a x 0 = 0
RHS = 2a x 0 = 0
LHS = RHS = 0
Hence Proved, a = 2a
Hope it makes sense...
Regards,
Bheshaz Bedi
#9871116988
beshaz09@gmail.com
From India, New Delhi
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Nice one! Credit must be given to Kumar.
The actual fact is - in maths, you cannot divide any number by zero - so if you notice below:
a = 2a ----------- Eq1
Let's assume a = a1
a1 = 2a1 ------- Eq2
Let's assume a = a2
a2 = 2a2 ------- Eq3
Eq2 - Eq3
a1 - a2 = 2a1 - 2a2
(a1 - a2) = 2(a1 - a2)
2 = (a1 - a2)/(a1 - a2) this is the place where it is zero divided by zero!! Hence, you get the following answer:
2 = 1
Therefore, Eq1 becomes
a = 2a
Have a fantastic weekend!
From India, New Delhi
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The actual fact is - in maths, you cannot divide any number by zero - so if you notice below:
a = 2a ----------- Eq1
Let's assume a = a1
a1 = 2a1 ------- Eq2
Let's assume a = a2
a2 = 2a2 ------- Eq3
Eq2 - Eq3
a1 - a2 = 2a1 - 2a2
(a1 - a2) = 2(a1 - a2)
2 = (a1 - a2)/(a1 - a2) this is the place where it is zero divided by zero!! Hence, you get the following answer:
2 = 1
Therefore, Eq1 becomes
a = 2a
Have a fantastic weekend!
From India, New Delhi
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