Dear seniors, I want to know the difference between “fluent” in English and “mother tongue influence” (MTI). Could someone (a non-English person) who is fluent in English have MTI? Does it mean that anyone who has MTI is not fluent or not good in English? According to the Oxford Dictionary (Indian edition), “fluent” means speaking or writing in a clear and natural manner or accurately. Does someone who speaks with our “Indian accent” not speak fluent English?
Thanking you all.
Sincerely,
Ben J
From India, New Delhi
Thanking you all.
Sincerely,
Ben J
From India, New Delhi
Being fluent in any language and having a particular accent are two different things. You may not have MTI but not fluent in a language and vice versa. Have a nice day. Simhan
From United Kingdom
From United Kingdom
Look at all the TV news anchors—that's a neutral Indian accent, and that's as fluent as anything in the world. Hear Amitabh Bachchan talk or some of the young businessmen who are very articulate—all of them speak in a neutral Indian accent.
The Ideal Accent for Fluency
To be fluent, you need not copy either the American or British accent. The ideal goal is to have a neutral Indian accent. A neutral Indian accent doesn't have MTI but is not a copy of the American/British accent.
From India, Delhi
The Ideal Accent for Fluency
To be fluent, you need not copy either the American or British accent. The ideal goal is to have a neutral Indian accent. A neutral Indian accent doesn't have MTI but is not a copy of the American/British accent.
From India, Delhi
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