Dear Sir,
Greetings for the day!
One of my friends is working in a Limited company. As per the company's current HR policy, gratuity is payable to all employees based on Gross Salary. However, the company has decided to change the policy WITH RETROSPECTIVE EFFECT to pay gratuity based on Basic+DA.
My question is, can the company do this?
Thank you.
From India, Mumbai
Acknowledge(0)
Amend(0)
Greetings for the day!
One of my friends is working in a Limited company. As per the company's current HR policy, gratuity is payable to all employees based on Gross Salary. However, the company has decided to change the policy WITH RETROSPECTIVE EFFECT to pay gratuity based on Basic+DA.
My question is, can the company do this?
Thank you.
From India, Mumbai
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)
No, this cannot be done without issuing notice under Section 9A of the Industrial Disputes Act. Moreover, gratuity, being an amount calculated based on the remuneration or salary as per the contract of service, reducing it from the salary to a basic salary and DA alone is illegal. Salary for the purpose of the computation of gratuity should include all fixed components of salary that are considered for payment if the employee is on paid leave or deduction if the employee is on leave without pay. Obviously, an allowance, say, house rent allowance, paid as reimbursement of rent paid by the employee for the rented house taken for his residence, or the rent paid by the employer for the employee's residence, can be excluded from the salary.
From India, Kannur
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)
4490From India, Kannur
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)
Dear Jignesh,
Madhu Sir has replied to your query in detail as per the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, Section 2(s). However, in India, most of the companies are paying gratuity only on Basic plus Dearness Allowance, and where there is no DA, then only on Basic pay. No inspecting authority has any objection to it so far.
Regards,
Suresh
From India, Thane
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)
Madhu Sir has replied to your query in detail as per the provisions of the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, Section 2(s). However, in India, most of the companies are paying gratuity only on Basic plus Dearness Allowance, and where there is no DA, then only on Basic pay. No inspecting authority has any objection to it so far.
Regards,
Suresh
From India, Thane
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)
In this case, the company was earlier paying gratuity on gross salary, and making it on basic and DA is against the service conditions. Actually, gratuity is an amount to be calculated on the remuneration as per the contract of employment. Remuneration or salary as per the contract of employment cannot be reduced without changing the conditions of service, which, in turn, requires notice under Section 9A of the ID Act.
From India, Kannur
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)
From India, Kannur
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)
Thanks Madhu sir, for the detailed info. Vikash Kumar - Ranchi
From India, Bangalore
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)
From India, Bangalore
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)
Dear Madhu Sir,
I have clearly mentioned in my first sentence that you have replied to Jignesh's query in detail and it's perfectly right, thus applied for his friend's organization.
My second sentence is generic, which is followed by most organizations for computing gratuity payment on Basic + DA.
Regret for any confusion.
Regards,
Suresh
From India, Thane
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)
I have clearly mentioned in my first sentence that you have replied to Jignesh's query in detail and it's perfectly right, thus applied for his friend's organization.
My second sentence is generic, which is followed by most organizations for computing gratuity payment on Basic + DA.
Regret for any confusion.
Regards,
Suresh
From India, Thane
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)
Yes, I know but why did I post it again was to reiterate the point, that’s all. I understood what did you convey. Thanks,
From India, Kannur
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)
From India, Kannur
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)
Hi,
Actually, my brother resigned from his company, and the company stated that he has to serve a one-month notice period. However, he does not want to go to the office due to some medical issues. Is it possible for him to use his earned leave (EL) during the notice period since he has 70 EL days? Therefore, is it mandatory for him to serve the notice period?
Thank you.
From India, Delhi
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)
Actually, my brother resigned from his company, and the company stated that he has to serve a one-month notice period. However, he does not want to go to the office due to some medical issues. Is it possible for him to use his earned leave (EL) during the notice period since he has 70 EL days? Therefore, is it mandatory for him to serve the notice period?
Thank you.
From India, Delhi
Acknowledge(0)Amend(0)Join Our Community and get connected with the right people who can help. Our AI-powered platform provides real-time fact-checking, peer-reviewed insights, and a vast historical knowledge base to support your search.
Retrospective Effect of Payment of Bonus Amdmt Act 2015.docx
Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 & The Rules.ppt