Dear Subject Matter Experts,
An organization is undergoing a complete automation process wherein a large contract labor force is engaged. The attendance process is already automated. All contract labor is supposed to mark their attendance through this system of the Principal Employer. The contractor is reimbursed based on the actual attendance plus his service charges of 10%.
Automation of Contractor Billing
Now, the Principal Employer is in the process of automating the billing of contractors, wherein bills for every contractor will be automatically generated based on the attendance marked in the system. The bill will include the name and other details of their firm, and the contractor can download it, sign it through their system, and send it to the Principal Employer for reimbursement. This process saves a lot of time and effort in checking the bill.
Legal Considerations
Is it advisable to proceed with this automation? What precautions should be taken to ensure it is not treated as a sham contract in the eyes of the law? I would be grateful if any case law could be cited.
An organization is undergoing a complete automation process wherein a large contract labor force is engaged. The attendance process is already automated. All contract labor is supposed to mark their attendance through this system of the Principal Employer. The contractor is reimbursed based on the actual attendance plus his service charges of 10%.
Automation of Contractor Billing
Now, the Principal Employer is in the process of automating the billing of contractors, wherein bills for every contractor will be automatically generated based on the attendance marked in the system. The bill will include the name and other details of their firm, and the contractor can download it, sign it through their system, and send it to the Principal Employer for reimbursement. This process saves a lot of time and effort in checking the bill.
Legal Considerations
Is it advisable to proceed with this automation? What precautions should be taken to ensure it is not treated as a sham contract in the eyes of the law? I would be grateful if any case law could be cited.