There was a time when workforces were heavily male-dominated but now that we are so much concerened about equality, D&I policies; and so many amendments to these laws have come, why don't they correct it.
e.g. I was reading the Codes on Wages, 2019 act and this occured to me for the 100th time maybe, when in Sec 18, subsection 2, they say 'fines imposed on him'. In 2019, how could they miss mentioning 'her'!
I am an MBA(HR) student and I really want to know the reason behind this.
e.g. I was reading the Codes on Wages, 2019 act and this occured to me for the 100th time maybe, when in Sec 18, subsection 2, they say 'fines imposed on him'. In 2019, how could they miss mentioning 'her'!
I am an MBA(HR) student and I really want to know the reason behind this.