Dear Friend, no one can claim to be completely correct. Over time, several judgments have been made regarding the interpretation of the "definition." Interestingly, various rulings have been issued, but they differ. There could have been a single "decision."
In the absence of information, someone cannot be called illiterate or treated as foolish. The case citation is different and cannot be binding for everyone unless it is considered absolute or an inherent part of the Act. In my opinion, you should challenge the matter in court against the decision of your past employer, as they did not consider your case fit for gratuity.
Judgment from Supreme Court
"Yes, by virtue of the judgment of the Supreme Court rendered under the provisions of the Industrial Dispute Act in Surendra Kumar Verma vs. Central Govt. Industrial Tribunal, [(1980) (4) S.C.C.433)], it is enough that an employee has a service of 240 days in the preceding 12 months, and it is not necessary that he should have completed one whole year's service. As the definition of continuous service in the Industrial Dispute Act and Payment of Gratuity Act are synonymous, the same principle can be adopted under the act also, and hence an employee rendering service of 4 years, 10 months, and 11 days is considered to have completed 5 years of continuous service under sec.4(2) and thereby is eligible for gratuity."
Eligibility for Gratuity
1. 4 years and 6 months (190 days = 1 year) where the company follows a 5-day week.
2. 4 years and 8 months (240 days = 1 year) where the company follows a 5-day week.
The Payment of Gratuity (Second Amendment) Act, 1984 clarifies this. One needs to calculate the number of years and service completion as follows for a company that follows a 5-day week.
Read more at:
Clarity between gratuity eligibility service (5 or 4.8 yrs)? - Gratuity - Labour & Service Law
Read more at:
http://www.lawyersclubindia.com/foru...ween-gratuity-