Dear Sirs/Veterans,
I have a practical question regarding N & F holidays. The question is: If an employee (permanent worker or CL) is absent without permission on the previous and following day of a national or festival holiday that falls in between, will they be eligible to be paid for that national or festival holiday? Please note that days of absence without permission will not be considered as payable days for the employee, regardless of whether they have leave balance or not.
Currently, most industries follow the practice that if the above scenario occurs, the worker will not be paid wages for the national or festival holiday. The rationale behind this is why should the employee receive the benefit for that day if they were absent on both the preceding and succeeding day of the national or festival holiday. I seek clarity on whether this practice is correct and whether there could be any potential negative legal implications in the future.
Thank you.
I have a practical question regarding N & F holidays. The question is: If an employee (permanent worker or CL) is absent without permission on the previous and following day of a national or festival holiday that falls in between, will they be eligible to be paid for that national or festival holiday? Please note that days of absence without permission will not be considered as payable days for the employee, regardless of whether they have leave balance or not.
Currently, most industries follow the practice that if the above scenario occurs, the worker will not be paid wages for the national or festival holiday. The rationale behind this is why should the employee receive the benefit for that day if they were absent on both the preceding and succeeding day of the national or festival holiday. I seek clarity on whether this practice is correct and whether there could be any potential negative legal implications in the future.
Thank you.