Ok, However i got something from some other blog
"Judgment from Supreme Court: "Yes, by virtue of the judgment of Supreme Court rendered under the provisions of the Industrial Dispute Act in Surendra Kumar Verma vs. Central Govt. Industrial Tribunal,[(1980) (4) S.C.C.433)], it is enough that an employee has a service of 240 days in the preceding 12 months and it is not necessary that he should have completed one whole year’s service. As the definition of continuous service in Industrial Dispute Act and Payment of Gratuity Act are synonymous, the same principal can be adopted under the act also and hence an employee rendering service of 4 year 10months 11days is considered to have completed 5 years continuous service under sec.4(2) and thereby is eligible for gratuity." Quotation from the book: Law Book (Bare Act,2004) i.e. The Payment of Gratuity Act,1972 (Publisher: Law Publishers () Pvt.Ltd. 18A-S.P.Marg,Post Box-1077,Allahabad-211 001. Phone:623735,623741 Fax-0532-622276.
1. 4 years and 6 months (190 days = 1 year) where the company follows 5 day a week.
2. 4 years and 8 months ( 240 days = 1 year) where the company follows 5 day a week.
Is eligible for gratuity.The payment of gratuity ( second amendment) act, 1984 clarifies this. One needs to calculate the no of years and service completion as follows. A company which follows 5 day week Doj 1.05.2000 - 01.05.2000 to 30.04.2001 - worked for 190 days 01.05.2001 to 30.04.2002 - worked for 190days If we go by the above formula and if the person does not have any break in service he will be eligible for gratuity on 01.11.2004 "
Could you please clarify on it?