Hi, I am working on leave policies for my organization, and in the maternity leave policy, we have included a constraint that states the concerned female employee must have served for a minimum period of 2 years to be eligible for maternity leave. Is it okay to have such a constraint, or is it not legally right?
Please let me know if you have any further questions or need additional clarification.
Please let me know if you have any further questions or need additional clarification.