I resigned from a Kolkata-based company, XXX, which is owned by a well-reputed digital marketing and analytics agency in Singapore, YYY, one month after I joined (for various reasons).
At the time of my resignation, they asked me to serve a 45-day notice period, to which I agreed. A week later, I was suddenly told to discontinue, and the company no longer wanted me to serve the rest of my notice period. They agreed to pay the salary for the days I worked but not for the unserved notice period, on the pretext that I was a new employee (on probation). However, there was no communication indicating that the notice period during probation was "just a moment's notice."
I understand it's at the company's discretion to let or not let an employee serve the notice period, but are they also in full right to not pay for the unserved notice period? It sounds unfair or one-sided to me (an employee can't leave without fulfilling the notice period obligation, but the employer can, at its will, enforce the employee to not serve any notice period without any pay in lieu of notice?!).
Any clarification would be highly appreciated on how things work (or should work) in such situations.
Thanks in advance, and please let me know if you need more information on the case.
At the time of my resignation, they asked me to serve a 45-day notice period, to which I agreed. A week later, I was suddenly told to discontinue, and the company no longer wanted me to serve the rest of my notice period. They agreed to pay the salary for the days I worked but not for the unserved notice period, on the pretext that I was a new employee (on probation). However, there was no communication indicating that the notice period during probation was "just a moment's notice."
I understand it's at the company's discretion to let or not let an employee serve the notice period, but are they also in full right to not pay for the unserved notice period? It sounds unfair or one-sided to me (an employee can't leave without fulfilling the notice period obligation, but the employer can, at its will, enforce the employee to not serve any notice period without any pay in lieu of notice?!).
Any clarification would be highly appreciated on how things work (or should work) in such situations.
Thanks in advance, and please let me know if you need more information on the case.