Math Puzzle: Can Anyone Prove or Disprove This Equation a = 2a?

Hi,

Can anybody prove the following statement:
a = 2a

a = 2a -----------Eq1

Let's assume a = a1
a1 = 2a1 ------- Eq2

Let's assume a = a2
a2 = 2a2 ------- Eq3

Eq2 - Eq3
a1 - a2 = 2a1 - 2a2
(a1 - a2) = 2(a1 - a2)
2 = (a1 - a2)/(a1 - a2)
2 = 1

Therefore, Eq1 becomes
a = 2a

Truly Yours,
Kumar.H.P

Hi Kumar,

It seems you are eating Sona Chandi Chyawanprash too much. Why take all these pains? If a = 2a; then 2 = a/a which will be 2 = 1. For this simple step, you went all the way round the globe...

Take care of Sona Chandi.

Sunil, your analogy is wrong. You are working on an assumption that a = 2a. The fact is that we need to prove that and not work out of that assumption. This is a proof by solution, not a proof by reinforcement.

Thanks, Madhu

Prove: a = 2a

LHS = a

RHS = 2a

To Prove: LHS = RHS

Proof: Multiply both sides by 0

LHS = a x 0 = 0

RHS = 2a x 0 = 0

LHS = RHS = 0

Hence Proved, a = 2a

Hope it makes sense...

Regards,

Bheshaz Bedi

#9871116988

beshaz09@gmail.com

Nice one! Credit must be given to Kumar.

The actual fact is - in maths, you cannot divide any number by zero - so if you notice below:

a = 2a ----------- Eq1

Let's assume a = a1

a1 = 2a1 ------- Eq2

Let's assume a = a2

a2 = 2a2 ------- Eq3

Eq2 - Eq3

a1 - a2 = 2a1 - 2a2

(a1 - a2) = 2(a1 - a2)

2 = (a1 - a2)/(a1 - a2) this is the place where it is zero divided by zero!! Hence, you get the following answer:

2 = 1

Therefore, Eq1 becomes

a = 2a

Have a fantastic weekend!