How Do You Calculate Accident-Free Man Days After an Incident? Seeking Clarification

dipil
Dear All, can anyone let me know how to calculate the Accident Free Man Days? If any fatal or reportable accident occurs, how should it be considered? For example, let's consider this year up to July 31st:

- Jan = 31 Days
- Feb = 28 Days
- Mar = 31 Days
- Apr = 30 Days
- May = 31 Days
- June = 30 Days
- July = 31 Days

If no accident happens, the Accident Free Mandays for the period of Jan - July 2011 will be 212 Days. If a fatal or reportable accident happens on July 31st, then the Accident Free Mandays for the same period will be 211 Days or not.

After such an incident, can we start counting the next period from August 1st or not?

I hope my question is clear. I am looking forward to getting clarification on my query.

Thanks in advance.
raghuvaran chakkaravarthy
For example, in the case of a fatality or a reportable accident that occurred on July 31st, you are supposed to lose 212 days. Your counting will start again on August 1st with 1 day. I hope this clarifies things for you.
srinivasarao manikyala
Accident-Free Days = (Man-days worked for the month / No. of calendar days for the month) x No. of accident-free calendar days of the current month. Finally, cumulate the data from each month's summary. Please go through the attached XLS file. I hope this information may clear your query.

Regards
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kvsundaram
Please find below the calculation formula that we use in our organization. (I hope that I have shared this with you earlier?)

Thank you.

Regards
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sam-abraham@live.com
What I understand from your query is that you are looking forward to knowing the Accident-Free Man-Days. What I believe is that an accident is not only limited to fatality or reportable incidents; it includes first aid cases, medical treatment cases, and restricted work cases as well. I'm not sure whether I am correct or not, but the best term you can use here is cumulative days without LTI or fatality.

Thanks, Sam
srinivasarao manikyala
Dear Dipil and Vineet,

If no accident happens, the Accident-Free Man-days for the period of January to July 2011 will be 212 days. If a fatal accident or reportable accident occurs on July 31st, then the Accident-Free Man-days for the period of January to July 2011 will be 211 days or not.

My Justification:

211 days represent the Accident-free calendar days, not Man-days. To calculate the accident-free man-days, you need to consider the total man-days.

For example:

To compute the accident summary for July at the end of the month: Suppose an accident occurred on July 23rd, then the Accident-free calendar days are 22 days. Given that July has 31 calendar days and assuming your workforce consists of 500 individuals:

Total Man-days worked = (31/7)*5*500 = 11071

(31/7*5 denotes 40 hours per week or 5 days per week)

Accident-Free man-days = (Total Man-days worked (11071) / Calendar days for the month (31)) * Accident-free calendar days (22)

Therefore, there are 7856.8 accident-free man-days for the month of July within your organization.

I hope this explanation clarifies your doubt and serves the intended purpose.

Regards,
dipil
Thanks for your Excel file and the explanations. I am very sorry to say, I did not fully understand your explanation.

Clarification Needed

In the explanation you provided below, from where does this 7 come? What does it denote?

"Total Man-day worked = 31/7*5*500 = 11071"

Please clarify. Thanks in advance.

dipil
Dear Sam, Thanks for your inputs into the thread. It's Accident-Free Man-Days that our management wants. So we have to provide that and use this term. Thanks and keep on participating.

dipil
Thank you for your input into the thread. The file you attached is as per OSHA standards. I am looking for the calculations that we follow based on Indian standards. Nonetheless, thank you for sharing.

kvsundaram
Dear Dipil, as I informed you, we are following OSHA standards and calculating accordingly.

Dear Mr. Rao, I also had the same question that Dipil asked. I'm still unclear on your explanation. Why can't we follow this structure - No. of working days * No. of working hours directly? What is the reason behind this calculation, as it is confusing to me.
dipil
Dear KVS, I am also not yet clear about the explanation of what SRM gives. But based on your question, I believe it will provide the man-hours, not the man-days.

@ SRM, please assist me in clarifying this specific issue. What will be the Accident-Free Man-Days for the month of July 2011?

Calculation Details

- Total Manpower = 500
- No accidents occurred in the month.
- Total Days in the Month = 31
- Days Worked = 26
- Hours worked per Day = 8 Hours

Accident-Free Man-Days for the month of July 2011 = 500 * 26 = 13000. Is this the correct answer? Please help clarify my doubt.
Regards
srinivasarao manikyala
Dear Dipil and KVS, If no accident occurred in the month of July, your calculation is correct. If you consider 5 working days a week, you have to consider 21 instead of 26. For an appropriate outcome, collecting actual data from HR is also the right method. In case any accident occurred during this month, suppose on the 16th of July, the number of working days may be 12 or 13.
devraj sharma
Dear Dipil, I think your query is well met by Mr. S Mani. What he has explained regarding your query is about computing mandays for one month only. Man-days worked are different from calendar days. Mandays worked in an organization are the total workdays performed (excluding the rest days), i.e., calendar days * workdays per week * manpower.

For example, in July, there are 31 calendar days, 7 days in a week, and 5 workdays in a week. Therefore, 31 * (5/7) = 22.14 days, which we can round down to 22 days worked in July. If the manpower is 500, then the total mandays for July would be 22 * 500 = 11,000 mandays. Further, if you multiply this by 8 hours a day, you get the total man-hours.

As mentioned earlier, your accident-free mandays from January to July are lost if a fatal or reportable accident happens on the 31st of July, and the accident-free period starts from the 1st of August onwards.

I hope I could explain it correctly to you.

Regards, drs
raghuvaran chakkaravarthy
Dear Srinivasa Rao, we are also working under OSHA; it's totally new to me what we discussed in this thread. I heard about this but still have not yet used/applied those calculations. However, now I am well cleared with the help of helping hands. Keep on sharing your expertise with us.

Keep up the good work & Thanks.

Regards.
srinivasarao manikyala
Dear Mr. DRS, you exactly caught the calculation method. Thanks for your inputs into this thread.

Dear Dipil & KVS, however, your query got cleared. Thank you for initiating such a good topic. I know very well, many safety officers are not clear or get confused with these calculations.

Dear Raghu, thank you very much for your comments.
dipil
Dear DRS, Thanks for your input into the thread. I will come back to you and Mr. KVS if I face any practical problems related to this topic in the future. Thanks, and keep on sharing your expertise with us.

kavitha b h
Thank you for the valid information to calculate accident man-days for every month. I also want to know about actuarial valuation for gratuity calculation. Can anyone provide a response to this, please?
Ramesh Tarkase
Dear Sir,

Please guide me on how to calculate man-days lost and lost man-hours. For example, if two workers experience a double leg fracture on 28/10/2016.

Regards,
Ramesh
Mauryaa
Dear Mr. SRM & Mr. Raghu,

Thank you for clearing the doubt between Accident-Free Man Days and Accident-Free Calendar Days. However, I am a bit confused about the 5 workdays in a week. In our organization, we have 6 workdays in a week. So, can we put the value 6 instead of 5 in the same formula.

Regards,
Arun
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