The preamble of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, says that it is "an Act to regulate the employment of WOMEN in certain establishments for certain periods before and after child-birth and to provide for maternity benefit and certain other benefits". There is no mention about married women. Again section 3 (o) defines woman as " "woman" means a woman employed, whether directly or through any agency, for wages in any establishment. Here also there is no mention about married woman. Therefore, for an employer to pay maternity benefits, pregnancy and child birth are the two things to be satisfied and he is not supposed to be concerned whether the woman claiming maternity benefit is married or not. Had it been available only to married woman then shouldn't there arise a problem that the employer should ensure that the employee's child is really the child of her own husband?
Regards,
Madhu.T.K