The preamble of the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, states that it is "an Act to regulate the employment of women in certain establishments for certain periods before and after childbirth and to provide for maternity benefits and certain other benefits." There is no mention of married women. Again, section 3(o) defines a woman as " 'woman' means a woman employed, whether directly or through any agency, for wages in any establishment." Here also, there is no mention of married women. Therefore, for an employer to pay maternity benefits, pregnancy and childbirth are the two conditions to be satisfied, and the employer is not supposed to be concerned with whether the woman claiming maternity benefits is married or not. If it had been available only to married women, wouldn't there arise a problem where the employer should ensure that the employee's child is really the child of her own husband?
Regards, Madhu.T.K