Manager, Operations
Learning & Teaching Fellow (retired)
Ben Jamir

Dear seniors,
I want to know the difference between “fluent” in English and” mother tongue influence”.
Could someone (non English person) who is fluent in English have a MTI? Does it mean that if anyone who has MTI is not fluent or not good in English? As oxford dictionary (Indian edition) “Fluent” means speaking or writing in a clear and natural manner or accurately. Does one who speaks our “Indian accent” is not fluent English?

Thanking you all.
Ben j

From India, New Delhi
Being fluent in any language and having a particular accent are two different things. You may not have MTI but not fluent in a language and vice versa. Have a nice day. Simhan
From United Kingdom
Look at all the TV news anchors - that's neutral Indian accent and that's as fluent as anything in the world. Hear Amitabh Bachchan talk or some of the young businessmen who are very articulate - all of them talk in neutral Indian accent.
To be fluent you need not copy either American or British accent. The idea goal is to have a neutral Indian accent. Neutral Indian accent doesn't have MTI but is not a copy of American/British accent.

From India, Delhi
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