nanu1953The contractual workman will be eligible for gratuity if he has continuous service as per payment of gratuity act for the years he has worked for the organization.
He will also be eligible for leave pay if there is any leave due in his credit.
As opined by Hemal_HR is absolutely right.
S K Bandyopadhyay ( WB, Howrah)
CEO-USD HR Solutions
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From India, New Delhi
KK!HRThe operative portion of the order has to be seen to understand the legal implications.
From the narration, option 1 appears legal and proper as the 20% back wages is to be seen as compensation and since there is no reinstatement.
From India, Mumbai
firstname.lastname@example.orgThere are some basic facts which are not available for arriving at some ideas. A) It was stated "Required Notices were issued" What happened then? Did he reply or the Notices were returned undelivered? B) What was the action initiated in either case? B) Was he Terminated without Conducting Domestic Enquiry? C) How did he suddenly approached the Court? D) Did you receive Notice and did you appear? E) What was stated by you in the Court?......
From India, Chennai
email@example.comIt appears that some material facts are missing as to "required notices were issued." It appears the employee's service was terminated without following the due process. How could there be a judicial order for reinstatement in case there was no termination?
From India, Kochi