Suchandra
1

Dear Seniors !
I would like to know what are the rules and norms followed regarding Employee absenteeism due to a general strike in the state or the city.
My questions are:-
1> Will that be treated as a Paid holiday (If there is no option of alternate working day)
2> Is there any norm for that if the attendance is less than say 20-30% , then only it can be declared as a Paid Holiday.
Would Request all of you to put some insight into the above situation.
Thnx n Rgds
Suchandra

From India, Calcutta
navrozpanjwani
2

Hi Suchandra,
Many companies make it a paid holiday - but at the same time the company should not suffer because of the general strike - So major of the companies ask the employees to work on a non - official day (like in MNC's Saturday is a holiday, so they ask them to report on a particular Saturday and complete the work).
Hope others would agree with the same.
Thanks and Regards,
Navroz

From India
Suchandra
1

Thnx a lot .. for ur contribution ..
As i have already mentioned, there is no option of a alternate working day as Saturday is already a working day..
In that case .. what are the other options..
And most importantly, is there any such rule or norm... like if employee present percentage is less than 20-30% in total ..then it is automatically a paid holiday..
Request your feedback on this .
Thnx ----- Suchandra

From India, Calcutta
Manish Mishra
2

Hi Suchandra
Was going thru the details
Now, there are certain things.
1. If it is a curfew , then it will be a paid - holiday.
2. But in case of general strike called by any party will be treated as absent ( Incase there is no option of alternate working days).
Thanks
Manish

From Denmark, Copenhagen
s_ma96
Hi, I am working in a ITES company,where saturday is a working day.our employees was asked to work on sunday to compensate for the strike day. Hope this helps in some way. Sumathymaraimalaai
From India, Pondicherry
naseer
Dear Suchandra,
Un biased approach to deal such problem is vital.
You have to probe the case, as
A bundh need not necessarily be TOTAL, can be PARTIAL.
So, the location of the company and its each individual employee is important, each employee case has to be dealt as exclusive and information to be gathered that whether that area ( where this particular employee stays ) was under TOTAL BUNDH, if so then additional OFF to be given, if not then asking applying leave.
and in case the LOCUS ( Company area ) has observed a total BUNDH, and employees of that area ( including other companies ) were physically / non availability of transport and other mean, were prevented then either PAID HOLIDAY or OFF to be given to all employees.
Firms working under routine shifts ( 24 Hours ) production scenario, for them this has to be dealt while viewing the shift in and out timings corelating with BUNDH TIMINGS ( this goes long to discuss )

From Saudi Arabia, Al Khobar
amrit_rodrigues
No worker can be penalised for any strike or cessation of work which is not an outcome of his/ a unified coercive action on the part of his associates/ union to which he owes alligence. In other words it is considered as a paid holiday, and the company can only request but not impose upon a worker to compensate for that day. If this is done through coersion by the company (which most rogue organisations (read99% IT ITES firms do)) , the person reserves the right to refuse the same, even if he has been made to sign an agreement/ contract.
A general observation, most comments are comparing companies rather than commenting on the law itself, irrespective of whether A company does it or B it is mor important to do what is legal and lawful.
regards


S. Krishnamoorthy
5

It depends on the composition of employees in an organization. In BPOs if the female employees preponderantly high, they tend to avoid coming to office on the day of general bandh for a variety of reasons. The main difficulty is the lack of transport facilities and the other is fear. It is for the management to take a decision taking into account the prevailing ground realities. There is no mandatory order or rule from the Government - either Central or State.
The wise thing is to declare a paid holiday if the bandh is total and if the bandh is partial, it is desirable to ignore the absenteeism.

From United States, Roslindale
ccdepindia@yahoo.co.in
25

Hi,
If the workers cannot be made to suffer due to Bandh, so also the employer must not suffer for no fault of his. In our company, we used to adjust the absence against paid leave due to the workmen. either casual or earned leave.
There is no question of giving paid hpliday to workmen. Either substitute it by working on a holday or adjust it against paid leave due to the workmen.
Cyril

From India, Nagpur
CFIT
We declared holiday on the day of strike and had asked the employees to come on the next saturday. One of the employees was in privilege leave during bandh and hence the holiday has been included in his leave. He claims that he should be allowed to take a leave on the working Saturday as he has already taken a leave on the bandh day.
From India, Calcutta
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