T.Thirumurugan
32

Dear sir/madam,
One woman employee joined before one month, now she is in pregnant and request us to provide for maternity leave under maternity benefit act, 1961. At the time of joining itself, she was in pregnant. But that time she failed to disclose this matter. Now only she is intimating to us. Her working days are very less. Because she joined newly in our company. Is she eligible for maternity benefit?
Please clarify above things.
Thanks with Regards
Thirumurugan

From India, Hyderabad
valbooj
15

Is she under probation or confirmed full time -employee. At least she should rendered her service for 3 months to your Organisation then only she'll be applicable for maternity leave. it is her mistake to not to disclose her pregnancy to the company before the appointment.
From India, Hyderabad
sandi_joshi
42

Dear, If she did not complete Eighty days services then she is not eligible to get the same.
From United Arab Emirates, Dubai
pvenu1953@gmail.com
125

Yes, the provision of law is simple and straightforward: She is entitled for maternity benefit if she has completed 80 days of service, otherwise not. You may refer Section 5(2):
From India, Kochi
malikjs
167

Dear
As my friends has already written if a women employee complete 80 days before proceeding on leave than she becomes entitle to get maternity benefit and it is also not required to disclose before joining.

From India, Delhi
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