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yogita panjwani
2

Dear All,
What is the criteria for gratuity? If the employee has worked for 4 years 8 months. Is he/she is eligible for gratuity. If yes, request you to provide the amendment gratuity act, 2011 so that the same can be shown to the management if required as a proof.
Request you to give me the feedback for the same at the earliest.
Thanks in anticipation,
Yogita

From India, Mumbai
prasenjit.mitra
173

Hi Yogita,
The minimum period need to be served to be eligible for gratuity is 5 years.
And there is no new amendments on this.
So in this case the employee is not eligible for gratuity.
If that employee is a performer and you want to retain him/her you can use this point at the time of exit interview.

From India, Mumbai
syedhussain
4

Hi Yogita,

Pls find the below details

Clarity between gratuity eligibility service (5 or 4.8 yrs)?

The gratuity eligibility service as per Gratuity Act 1972 is 5 years.

But as per the judgment from Supreme Court below and the quotation from the book quoted below it seems that the gratuity eligibility service is 4 years 240 days.

"Judgment from Supreme Court:

"Yes, by virtue of the judgment of Supreme Court rendered under the provisions of the Industrial Dispute Act in Surendra Kumar Verma vs. Central Govt. Industrial Tribunal,[(1980) (4) S.C.C.433)], it is enough that an employee has a service of 240 days in the preceding 12 months and it is not necessary that he should have completed one whole year’s service. As the definition of continuous service in Industrial Dispute Act and Payment of Gratuity Act are synonymous, the same principal can be adopted under the act also and hence an employee rendering service of 4 year 10months 11days is considered to have completed 5 years continuous service under sec.4(2) and thereby is eligible for gratuity."

Quotation from the book:

Law Book (Bare Act,2004) i.e. The Payment of Gratuity Act,1972 (Publisher: Law Publishers () Pvt.Ltd. 18A-S.P.Marg,Post Box-1077,Allahabad-211 001. Phone:623735,623741 Fax-0532-622276.website: lawpublishersindia.com

1. 4 years and 6 months (190 days = 1 year) where the company follows 5 day a week.

2. 4 years and 8 months ( 240 days = 1 year) where the company follows 5 day a week.

Is eligible for gratuity.The payment of gratuity ( second amendment) act, 1984 clarifies this. One needs to calculate the no of years and service completion as follows.

A company which follows 5 day week

Doj 1.05.2000 -

01.05.2000 to 30.04.2001 - worked for 190 days

01.05.2001 to 30.04.2002 - worked for 190days

If we go by the above formula and if the person does not have any break in service he will be eligible for gratuity on 01.11.2004 "

Non clarity of this rule has created confusion among a lot of employees. As some hear that some companies are following the 4 years 240 days rule, while some follow the 5 year rule. Please help remove this confusion so that nobody rights of gratuity are being compromised on. Expert Lawyer may please give his comments and advice. .

From India, Madras
syedhussain
4

https://www.citehr.com/386609-gratui...ent-rules.html
From India, Madras
Attached Files (Download Requires Membership)
File Type: doc Payment of gratuity act.doc (77.5 KB, 121 views)

Paramesh1974
2

Clarity between gratuity eligibility service (5 or 4.8 yrs)?

The gratuity eligibility service as per Gratuity Act 1972 is 5 years.

But as per the judgment from Supreme Court below and the quotation from the book quoted below it seems that the gratuity eligibility service is 4 years 240 days.

"Judgment from Supreme Court:

"Yes, by virtue of the judgment of Supreme Court rendered under the provisions of the Industrial Dispute Act in Surendra Kumar Verma vs. Central Govt. Industrial Tribunal,[(1980) (4) S.C.C.433)], it is enough that an employee has a service of 240 days in the preceding 12 months and it is not necessary that he should have completed one whole year’s service. As the definition of continuous service in Industrial Dispute Act and Payment of Gratuity Act are synonymous, the same principal can be adopted under the act also and hence an employee rendering service of 4 year 10months 11days is considered to have completed 5 years continuous service under sec.4(2) and thereby is eligible for gratuity."

Quotation from the book:

Law Book (Bare Act,2004) i.e. The Payment of Gratuity Act,1972 (Publisher: Law Publishers () Pvt.Ltd. 18A-S.P.Marg,Post Box-1077,Allahabad-211 001. Phone:623735,623741 Fax-0532-622276.website: lawpublishersindia.com

1. 4 years and 6 months (190 days = 1 year) where the company follows 5 day a week.

2. 4 years and 8 months ( 240 days = 1 year) where the company follows 5 day a week.

Is eligible for gratuity.The payment of gratuity ( second amendment) act, 1984 clarifies this. One needs to calculate the no of years and service completion as follows.

A company which follows 5 day week

Doj 1.05.2000 -

01.05.2000 to 30.04.2001 - worked for 190 days

01.05.2001 to 30.04.2002 - worked for 190days

If we go by the above formula and if the person does not have any break in service he will be eligible for gratuity on 01.11.2004 "

Non clarity of this rule has created confusion among a lot of employees. As some hear that some companies are following the 4 years 240 days rule, while some follow the 5 year rule. Please help remove this confusion so that nobody rights of gratuity are being compromised on.

* If you know any lawyer , you may discuss in this regards.


From India, Mumbai
yogita panjwani
2

Dear All,
Thanks for the updates...
Is it compulsorily that 240 days should be working days only. Does it includes Sundays and additional holidays like 15th august, Rakshabandan or excluding all this...
Pl. Clarify....
Thanks in anticipation,
Ms. Yogita Panjwani

From India, Mumbai
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