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  #11 (permalink)  
Old 23-07-2008, 03:49 PM
Amith R Murthy's Avatar
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Dear Mahesh,

Really a great one infact which i had got through SMS long back, but i just left it unanswered. Today it was not the same for me from the time i saw the question i was trying to find out the solution for this well here is my reply,

1st Ball --- 1st Batsman hits the ball for SIX and completes his 100
2nd Ball --- 1st Batsman hits the and runs for a short quick single but after crossing over he collides with the feilder gets injured and gets retired hurt. Here the feilding side will not appeal as it was a case of injury to the batsman (Hope you all remember the recent thing related to this happened in England VS New Zealand match) so new batsman comes to the middle.
3rd Ball --- 2nd Batsman hits the ball for SIX to complete his 100 and also the Match.

This is one such possibilty that i thought, in case of any other things that can happen i will post that also. Hope this will not be a shortened match as mentioned by Supriya. Let me know about my reply.........

Regards
Amith R.

Last edited by Amith R Murthy; 23-07-2008 at 03:51 PM.
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  #12 (permalink)  
Old 23-07-2008, 03:52 PM
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well according to me--

1st Batsman hits a 4 on a "No Ball" which is equal to 5 runs and in next ball take a single run. Now for last ball 2nd batsman comes on crease to bat and he hits a Six.

Match won by them... both batsman on 100 UNBEATEN....

Mahesh, waiting for your reply....
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  #13 (permalink)  
Old 23-07-2008, 03:54 PM
Amith R Murthy's Avatar
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Dear Chandrakanth,

Great try but one thing i want to make out here is, when you have put it as Ball 2 is a wide ball than i guess those runs will not be counted to the Batsman and more importantly if you consider it as No Ball also than total runs scored will become more than 7 which is the actual number of runs wanted for the team to win. Hope you agree with it.............

Regards
Amith R.
  #14 (permalink)  
Old 23-07-2008, 03:57 PM
Amith R Murthy's Avatar
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Dear Swathi,

Well i would say the same again great try. But when the 1st Batsman hits four of first ball it will be only 4 runs for him and No Ball run will be counted only to the batting side and when it takes single of next ball he will remain not out on 99 and will not reach 100...........

Regards
Amith R.
  #15 (permalink)  
Old 23-07-2008, 04:13 PM
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Hi Chandrakant,

According to your answer:
"Ball 1 = 4 runs
Ball 2 = Wide ball + 2 runs


Bats man 1 =100 runs

Ball 2 = bys bats man cross 1 run to team.".....

Match would end here only my dear since only 7 runs are required...
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  #16 (permalink)  
Old 23-07-2008, 04:20 PM
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hi , am neer
ans:
first batsman scored six on first ball & second ball is no ball & batsaman took single run
then second batsman score six or max four + two runs.

Tell me it is right or not ??
  #17 (permalink)  
Old 23-07-2008, 04:21 PM
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Hi Amit... u have assumed the shortened innings of the batsman and i have assumed shortened match due to rain.... !!!!
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  #18 (permalink)  
Old 23-07-2008, 04:21 PM
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first batsman scored six on first ball & second ball is no ball & batsaman took single run (leg by ) which is not count on players account.
  #19 (permalink)  
Old 23-07-2008, 06:13 PM
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It seems Supriya and amar are right. Special congrats to amar bcz U came up with a diff. solution. More answers may be there... Try out ....
GOOD luck.
  #20 (permalink)  
Old 23-07-2008, 06:24 PM
Amith R Murthy's Avatar
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Dear Supriya,

Yes you are right. Infact i am thinking about your first possiblity. Anyways great try and keep posting if you get any other options.......

Thanks Mahesh, will certainly try to come out with different solutions and if we do get we will post it.

Regards
Amith R.

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